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Basically.. This year at the WSOP I want to play these eventsSat May 31st- NLH 1500June 2nd - PLH 1500June 4th- NLH 2kJune 5th- NLH 6max 1500June 6th- LH 1500June 7th- NLH 2500June 9th- NLH Shoot 1500June 10th- LH 2000June 16th- NLH 6max 2500June 19th- NLH 1500June 20th- NLHE 2000June 21st- NLH 1500June 22nd- MHE 1500June 27th- NLHE 2000June 28th- NLHE 1500June 30th- NLHE 1500July 1st- LH Shootout 1500... and then the main event on the 4th or whenever it starts... total buyins = 38.5k .. id be willing to sell all of myself ( id want the standard 50% after stakeback) at a share of 50 bucks.. What is the best way about doing this so the people that have bought shares get a good opportunity to make a little dough and sweat me.. and also... when I final table a few of these events.. will it be really difficult to recalculate how much people get per share.. because obv the total cost of buyins will change .... Basically im a complete noob to math.. and if you could pull up a few equations so I can understand how it works.. 400 shares at 50 bucks = 20k.. etc etc...id stake you in a 20 - 180 man!!! any help with this would be greattttly appreciated.Ps.. would it be best to do it over the course of all tourneys.. so youd buy a peice of the 38.5k..and then lets say i cash for 100k total during the series.. 38.5k goes back to the original stakers.. and id get 50% of the 61k.. then we'd split 30k over the remaining shares???

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Basically.. This year at the WSOP I want to play these eventsSat May 31st- NLH 1500June 2nd - PLH 1500June 4th- NLH 2kJune 5th- NLH 6max 1500June 6th- LH 1500June 7th- NLH 2500June 9th- NLH Shoot 1500June 10th- LH 2000June 16th- NLH 6max 2500June 19th- NLH 1500June 20th- NLHE 2000June 21st- NLH 1500June 22nd- MHE 1500June 27th- NLHE 2000June 28th- NLHE 1500June 30th- NLHE 1500July 1st- LH Shootout 1500... and then the main event on the 4th or whenever it starts... total buyins = 38.5k .. id be willing to sell all of myself ( id want the standard 50% after stakeback) at a share of 50 bucks.. What is the best way about doing this so the people that have bought shares get a good opportunity to make a little dough and sweat me.. and also... when I final table a few of these events.. will it be really difficult to recalculate how much people get per share.. because obv the total cost of buyins will change .... Basically im a complete noob to math.. and if you could pull up a few equations so I can understand how it works.. 400 shares at 50 bucks = 20k.. etc etc...id stake you in a 20 - 180 man!!! any help with this would be greattttly appreciated.Ps.. would it be best to do it over the course of all tourneys.. so youd buy a peice of the 38.5k..and then lets say i cash for 100k total during the series.. 38.5k goes back to the original stakers.. and id get 50% of the 61k.. then we'd split 30k over the remaining shares???
I'd PM looshle. http://www.fullcontactpoker.com/poker-foru...c=97139&hl=
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Basically.. This year at the WSOP I want to play these eventsSat May 31st- NLH 1500June 2nd - PLH 1500June 4th- NLH 2kJune 5th- NLH 6max 1500June 6th- LH 1500June 7th- NLH 2500June 9th- NLH Shoot 1500June 10th- LH 2000June 16th- NLH 6max 2500June 19th- NLH 1500June 20th- NLHE 2000June 21st- NLH 1500June 22nd- MHE 1500June 27th- NLHE 2000June 28th- NLHE 1500June 30th- NLHE 1500July 1st- LH Shootout 1500... and then the main event on the 4th or whenever it starts... total buyins = 38.5k .. id be willing to sell all of myself ( id want the standard 50% after stakeback) at a share of 50 bucks.. What is the best way about doing this so the people that have bought shares get a good opportunity to make a little dough and sweat me.. and also... when I final table a few of these events.. will it be really difficult to recalculate how much people get per share.. because obv the total cost of buyins will change .... Basically im a complete noob to math.. and if you could pull up a few equations so I can understand how it works.. 400 shares at 50 bucks = 20k.. etc etc...id stake you in a 20 - 180 man!!! any help with this would be greattttly appreciated.Ps.. would it be best to do it over the course of all tourneys.. so youd buy a peice of the 38.5k..and then lets say i cash for 100k total during the series.. 38.5k goes back to the original stakers.. and id get 50% of the 61k.. then we'd split 30k over the remaining shares???
I would assume it depends on how much of a piece people are buying. The winnings would be split according to the percentage piece bought. Probably completely wrong but oh well.
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The easiest way for you to keep up with it all would be to sell shares of the total buy ins UNLESS someone wants to buy a complete event. For instance say you have someone who wants to stake you in the June 2, 5, and 9th events. You and them split 50/50 and whatever on stake back.That leaves 34k in "shares" to be split among the other shareholders. That would just be the easiest as far as keeping up with any and all individuals.

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PS: It was also be very easy to do something similar to what Loosh did......sell shares at either a % or a set $ amount. Either way........I WANT IN!!!!LOVE THE NEW PROFILE PIC!!!!

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uhm my numbers werent good enough for you?1 share = $100385 shareseach share gets 0.13% of the profit plus the original investment backyou can divide from there, 50$ share gets 0.065% of profit plus stakeback, etc

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if you decided after the fact to play more events, youd just change how much you paid out in regards to how much was staked. so say you played 48.5k in events in the end, youd now have a larger percentage of yourself, and would only pay back according to the new total percentage they had bought of you

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assuming you sell all your shares, at 38.5k it is 770 shares at 50 dollars a piece. from then on, you basically take your total cashes, subtract the original 38.5k and then divide the number in half (so you get your 50%) and then divide the rest by 770 to get how much would be paid out per share.for example if you cash 100k, you would take that, subtract 38.5k then divide the remaining 61.5k by 2, keep 30.75k yourself and divide the other 30.75k by 770 which is 39.93, then add that to the 50 dollars from the original 38.5k and you would pay each share 89.93 total. If people bought more then one share, you could easily multiply the 89.93 by the number of shares they bought.hope this helps

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$50 stakes = 770 total to be soldif $x is your winnings....of the first $38500 you win, each stake is worth $x divided by 770.if you win more, ($x - $38500) divided by (770 divided by 2) is what each stake gets PLUS $50 from the first formula.if you sell 300 stakes, the math does not change but you are the proud owner of 470 shares of yourself.i THINK this is correct. if it is, ship the $4.40 to someone else at random.

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all of the above seems correct to me...since you wanted equations, I tried to put it as simple as possible if you're not gonna/don't want to sell all of yourselflet's assume one share is worth 50$, and you stick to you're schedule(total buyins=38.5k)...so that gives you 770 shares to selln=number of sold sharesn/770 = xafter the wsop is over, you go figure out your profit(y):Pricemoney-38.5k = yso after you got x and y figured out, you put those numbers in the following equation:y [times] (x/2) = money you have to give up(m)then you do:m/n = zz is what each share will be worth to your stakers in addition to the originally invested money, so this basically means after you got all your money together from the tourneys, all you have to do would be:t [times] (50$+z$) = what you will give the staker back, where t is the amount of shares the staker bought.Ok, I hope that was somewhat understandable...I'll give you an example.Let's say you sold 520 shares and you end up with a total price money of 107.5k$x=520/770=0.675325y=107.5k$-38.5k$=69k$(((((y times x/2)))))---> 69k [times] (0.67325/2) = 69k [times] 0.33766 = ~23,30klol...actually made a mistake here and had to edit it ;)so now we do m/n23.3k/520=~44.81so every staker will get 94,81$ for every 50$ they invested(......t [times] 94,81$)!!!got it? :club: lolPS: hopefully it's all correct lolI'm like the 8th EDIT: I also get 39.5k in buy ins if you include the main event...unless thats only 9000$ this year!?

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all of the above seems correct to me...since you wanted equations, I tried to put it as simple as possible if you're not gonna/don't want to sell all of yourselflet's assume one share is worth 50$, and you stick to you're schedule(total buyins=38.5k)...so that gives you 770 shares to selln=number of sold sharesn/770 = xafter the wsop is over, you go figure out your profit(y):Pricemoney-38.5k = yso after you got x and y figured out, you put those numbers in the following equation:y [times] (x/2) = money you have to give up(m)then you do:m/n = zz is what each share will be worth to your stakers in addition to the originally invested money, so this basically means after you got all your money together from the tourneys, all you have to do would be:t [times] (50$+z$) = what you will give the staker back, where t is the amount of shares the staker bought.Ok, I hope that was somewhat understandable...I'll give you an example.Let's say you sold 520 shares and you end up with a total price money of 107.5k$x=520/770=0.675325y=107.5k$-38.5k$=69k$(((((y times x/2)))))---> 69k [times] (0.67325/2) = 69k [times] 0.33766 = ~23,30klol...actually made a mistake here and had to edit it ;)so now we do m/n23.3k/520=~44.81so every staker will get 94,81$ for every 50$ they invested(......t [times] 94,81$)!!!got it? :club: lolPS: hopefully it's all correct lol
Thats incorrect. If he only sold 520 shares, he still HAS a total of 770 shares. Only, this time, 250 shares are his own. so if he won 107,500 - 38500 = 69000(69000/770)/2 = $44.80 per share still + original $50so if he sold off 520 shares, but still owns 250 shares of himself....he owes the shareholders ~49296 @ 94.40 a sharesince he gets half the profits and owns 250 shares of himself....he gets 69000/2 = 34500 PLUS 94.40x250= 23600 = 58100original winnings = 107500shareholders shares = 49296 + his 58100 = 107396 (I rounded for simplicity, which equals the difference)EDIT: I see you edited your mistake. Neverminddddd
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It's okay...I'm here now.Here's what you do. Go to a different site, cause half the people will now figure this out after reading my post.1.Watch the producers2.sell 200% of yourself3.lose4.profitStep 3 is kind of important, actually it's really important, Study it, redo 1 than enjoy 4

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It's okay...I'm here now.Here's what you do. Go to a different site, cause half the people will now figure this out after reading my post.1.Watch the producers2.sell 200% of yourself3.lose4.profitStep 3 is kind of important, actually it's really important, Study it, redo 1 than enjoy 4
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First of all you're going to want to kill yourself after playing about 2 of those 1500s. I would play fewer events and focus on some bigger buy-ins. (better chance to win a bracelet, much better structure, etc.)Heres a staking example: If you thought you had a 100% roi in a $1500 and sold equivalent 1% pieces for $30 each, this would mean that the person putting up the stake would BREAK EVEN in EV and take on all the variance if you did indeed have that roi. So essentially it would be a one time 50/50 deal w/out makeup which doesn't really happen as its unfair to the backer.So here is something fair to do: Essentially you and your backer have different goals. Yours is to minimize variance and his is to make a +EV investment/get a sweat etc. So a fair price in the soft fields like the WSOP would be something around 1.1:1 or 1.2:1. So you would charge $16.50 or $18 a share for a $1500. Obv 1 share= 1%.You probably won't want to sell such small shares so you can do something like 10% in a 1500 will cost the backer $165 or $180. When paying out, they would get 10% of your total cash.edit: misworded/confused myself w/ shit

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First of all you're going to want to kill yourself after playing about 2 of those 1500s. I would play fewer events and focus on some bigger buy-ins. (better chance to win a bracelet, much better structure, etc.)Heres a staking example: If you thought you had a 100% roi in a $1500 and sold equivalent 1% pieces for $30 each, this would mean that the person putting up the stake would BREAK EVEN in EV and take on all the variance if you did indeed have that roi. So essentially it would be a one time 50/50 deal w/out makeup which doesn't really happen as its unfair to the backer.So here is something fair to do: Essentially you and your backer have different goals. Yours is to minimize variance and his is to make a +EV investment/get a sweat etc. So a fair price in the soft fields like the WSOP would be something around 1.1:1 or 1.2:1. So you would charge $16.50 or $18 a share for a $1500. Obv 1 share= 1%.You probably won't want to sell such small shares so you can do something like 10% in a 1500 will cost the backer $165 or $180. When paying out, they would get 10% of your total cash.edit: misworded/confused myself w/ shit
basically, what he said. if you still need someone to chug the math on a specific scenario, let me know. i'd be glad to. fwiw, it's easier to just give me a scenario and tell you what to pay out rather than create an equation that would work in all situations, especially if you're not a "math guy" :club:.
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when I final table a few of these events.. will it be really difficult to recalculate how much people get per share.. because obv the total cost of buyins will change ....
What I would do is just set your total investment goal to the max buy-ins you can spend - 38.5KThen if you miss an event because you're deep in a prior event you add that missed buy-in back to the stakeback.So lets say you raise the 38.5 at 770 shares of $50. You profit 100K, but you missed a 5K event. The backers each get their share of the 38.5 stakeback as they would if you had played all events and then you split the profit.If you don't cash anything and skip a 5K the backers would each get their share of that stake back. 5K/770.If you undersell then just assign the unsold shares to yourself. The only problem is that if you do get 700 backers and don't cash it's going to be a royal pain in the ass to send them each $6.
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1. Decide how much you want each share to be worth, it really doesnt matter except for maintenance purposes with dividing out payments. With smaller shares, you're likely to have more investors which could be a bish.2. Divide total buyins by value of shares to get number of shares3. Pay back total buy-ins first, then divide 50% of profit over the shares.So lets say you have 38.5k in buyins and want to do 385 $100 shares. You cash for 200k (conservative estimate obvvv). Each share is owed $100 + 161.5k / 2 / 385 or like $310 bucksWhat I would do is sell the shares for the absolute minimum # of buyins you will have. If you oversell shares, that coudl be a big problem. If you undersell, just count the rest of the shares as your own.

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