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no limit rules question


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I was playing a cash game with friends last night and we had a question about how to handle a hand when it came up.Blinds $.50/$1 and all the action I am about to describe is after the river has been dealt. Player in 1st position makes a bet of about $5 then the next player goes all in for $12. I then call the all-in and player in 1st position wants to go all in. Is he allowed to go all in after someone calls someone elses all in??We ended up saying he was not allowed to make the play but I just want to know the right play for future reference. Thanks.

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i dont get your argument why he cant re re-raise? I am pretty sure that if there is a cap on how many raises on each street, at the very least it is 1 bet and 3 raises. Most no-limit cash games do not have a cap. I think Paul Phillips talks about this in a blog entry he made recently. At the tourney at the Bike, i believe they had a cap on the betting, which most agreed was a horrible idea, and someone said that in there cash games they have a cap, but shouldnt be in the tourney.I might have just misunderstood what your question was, maybe you could elaborate on why you didnt think he could re re raise.

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he should be able to raise, the all in players re raise was a legal size raise (at least the size of the the original bet) so betting is not closed. if the re raise was for $2 more, you could have raised because you hadnt acted yet, but if you called the betting would be closed.

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he should be able to raise, the all in players re raise was a legal size raise (at least the size of the the original bet) so betting is not closed. if the re raise was for $2 more, you could have raised because you hadnt acted yet, but if you called the betting would be closed.
Almost positive thats the correct ruling.
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he should be able to raise, the all in players re raise was a legal size raise (at least the size of the the original bet) so betting is not closed. if the re raise was for $2 more, you could have raised because you hadnt acted yet, but if you called the betting would be closed.
Almost positive thats the correct ruling.
Thats how Id rule it. Thats an easy one
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Wait, does this mean that if a player 1 bets, player 2 raises all-in for less than minimum, player 3 calls, then player 1 can't reraise?
Right. With no legal raise behind player 1, the action effectively closes before it's back to him. His call/fold option is a triviality.
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Wait, does this mean that if a player 1 bets, player 2 raises all-in for less than minimum, player 3 calls, then player 1 can't reraise?Not sure if i understand correctly.
If player 1 bets $5 player 2 raises all in to $12 and player 3 calls, player 1IS allowed to raise, because the all in raise met the min raise requirement.If player 1 bets $5 player 2 raises all in for $9 and player 3calls, player 1 IS NOT allowed to raise, because player 2 did not make a min raise.
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yes he can re-raise. heres the rule: ( from the TDA website )"In no-limit and pot limit, less than a full raise does not reopen the betting to a player who already has acted."in other words, if he raised all in for $9, anyone who has voluntarily acted on their hands ( blinds do not count ) can NOT re-raise the all in players bet, but anyone who has NOT acted on their hand yet, CAN re-raise the all in players raise.

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I love it when guys come to my home game ( which is ran using casino / tda rules ) and try to either bet less than the ammt. of the big blind, or raise a $4 bet $2 more ... lmfao.And then, when I tell them they can't they get all pissy and are all like "man thats not how we play at my house!!!! WTF!!!"LMFAO

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If player 1 bets $5 player 2 raises all in for $9 and player 3calls, player 1 IS NOT allowed to raise, because player 2 did not make a min raise.
Actually, player 1 would be allowed to raise. The actual rule would be that as long as the all in raise was more than half of the initial bet then a reraise is allowed. So, if player 1 bets 5 and player 2 goes all in for 9 and player 3 calls then player 1 can come over the top for a reraise because player 2s allin rasie was more than half of the 5 bet by player 1.
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Isn't this similar to what many cheaters do? One raises, the other calls, and the other goes all in. If this form of cheating often occurs, I'm pretty sure the rule is legal. I also think there are an unlimited amount of bets for no limit. The only rules I know of are you have to match the big blind or raise in the current round unless you move all in.

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I don't get it. So if you bet and player in 2nd position raises all in player in 3rd position calls, you raise all in, and player in 2nd position folds, can the player in 3rd position reraise?
If someone goes all in and then folds, the only legal next move is to beat them around the head with a baseball bat.
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