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do you fold getting 35-to-1?


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Definite call. How many times have you seen the short stack decide preflop "this is my last hand"? 1/3rd of aSmall blind!!! seriously, call to see any overplayed hand. A10 logical here? i think so, and your getting amazing odds for that 9 2 off suit.

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I might fold 2 7, 2 8, or 3 8 with no clubs. I'd call anything else. Might make a case that spiking a 2, 3 or 8 could win you the pot with just a pair, but I might save the dollar and laugh it off if my 6-outer underpair (4-outer if he has a club) would have been good.

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http://www.cardplayer.com/poker_magazine/a...4966&m_id=65572semi relevant story where a guy mucked his hand that he KNEW was a loser because he had 24 and missed all his straight and flush draws. He didnt even have to pay 35-1, just simply mucked a free showing because of all the action and he was only 4 high! Turns out the other guy had 24 as well and they would have split and he lost out on a $600 pot (was $15/$30)
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Just so I'm clear on the math:35 to 1 means that you'll win one time for every 35 hands you lose. Shouldn't the percentage be 35/36= 97.2%, or do I have something wrong here?Sorry to be persnickety (thanx Allie :club:)
LMAO. Your welcome! Oh...and yes, I call the bet here with anything. (especially if i've raised and called a reraised after the flop!! doh!)
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I'd call with 2 uno cards just so I could see his hand.
That's exactly what I was thinking... I'd pay the buck just to see it. Never know, the guy might be a maniac bluffer anyway!
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