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Odds question


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Ok so we now the odds of getting a specific pocket pair is 1/221, but I read somewhere the odds of getting any pair is 1/17, this being you have your one card and so you now have 3/51 to pair your card thus 1/17, but that equates to 5.8%. That seems high, but the math seems right. Anyone have any clarification on this?

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Brando, You have the right information let me just clarify, the 221-1 (actually 220-1 but thats of no significance) is the probability of being dealt ACES, That is where they get that number from.The probability of being dealt ANY pair is 5.88% or 1-16, thats where those two figures are coming from.

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Brando, You have the right information let me just clarify, the 221-1 (actually 220-1 but thats of no significance) is the probability of being dealt ACES, That is where they get that number from.The probability of being dealt ANY pair is 5.88% or 1-16, thats where those two figures are coming from.
1 to 220 to be dealt any specific pair. You have the same chance of getting aces as getting deuces.
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1 to 220 to be dealt any specific pair. You have the same chance of getting aces as getting deuces.
True, but nobody sits there and says, "Yes, I've been waiting all night for these deuces!"
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  • 4 months later...

just think of it this way. there are 52 cards, correct?yesif you are dealt a card, any card, what are the chances that you will recieve a card?1/1that is correct. so, assuming that there are four cards associated with each basic value, how many cards are there left after you take one of them away?3yes, and how many cards total?51. So wait. i think i know what is going on. so if there are three cards left that could potentially give me the pair, and there are 51 cards left, i simply divide three by fifty one and get . . .thats right, 5.88%look out for that mother and her baby!!! oh my god!!! we are going to hit them!!HaHaHa.!! Maybe not!! Lets Gamble!!!!(baby)- SPLATGambling. From poker to babyslaughter. its a slippery slope.Chicago

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