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I have a question and would like a clarification on rules for a tournament I was in.Here is the situation:Small usually friendly poker league. Minor tournament for points and small cash prize.the players do the dealingThe hand in question:Preflop: all fold to the dealer who raises double the big blind. Small blind raises all in. Big blind folds.As soon as the big blind folds the dealer deals out the flop. He does not call the all in. He is told that the SB is all in and he says "oh? well then I call"The flop was 8h Kd 4cThe dealer then turns over his hold cards and shows Ah and Ks.All in shows pocket J'sArguement ensues and tournament judge is called over to straighten things out. He says finish running the cards so -- turn = 6s river = Qc.He then says that the all in is out and dealer won -- pair K's vs pair J's. His explaination is that since no one was left other than the dealer then the act of the dealer running the flop was essentually a call and he was commited good or bad. All in player argued that it was obvious that the dealer did not know that the SB was all in and only after he saw the flop and was told did he 'call' and he ( SB ) felt that at the least the flop should have been voided and redealt. Many at the table ( including myself ) felt the same but the tournament judge is the final word so the all in was out and play resumed.Now my question is this: Was the way it played out and the judge correct on the his interpretation of the rules or was his interpretation perhaps a bit off and the flop should have been voided and redealt?

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IMO he shouldn't have dealt the flop until he had made a declaration that he was calling.
I concur. But yes I feel that basically the dealer cheated, how can he commit his chips only after seeing that he had hit the flop?? lmao, redeal the flop imo.
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I feel like the hand should be dead and the sb collects the pot. Sometimes there are some stupid ass rules though.

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I concur. But yes I feel that basically the dealer cheated, how can he commit his chips only after seeing that he had hit the flop?? lmao, redeal the flop imo.
Many of us at at the table felt the same way but as is the way the Judge has final say. That is why I am hoping that someone here is intimate with the rules and can at least clarify if it was handles correctly.The dealer/player in question went on to make the final table and went out as the bubble. No extra points and no cash so maybe there was a bit of justice in the end but still feel sorry for the guy he knocked out if the situation was handles incorrectly.
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I concur. But yes I feel that basically the dealer cheated, how can he commit his chips only after seeing that he had hit the flop?? lmao, redeal the flop imo.
This. reshuffle the deck, (i'm not sure if you include dead cards), have the dealer complete his action, and proceed accordingly.
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In a casino they reshuffle and do it again.
but I guess house rules supersede all.
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After he deals the flop, can he actually so "oh i folded, give him the pot"? probably notTo me when he starts dealing that is basically a call. Depends how serious you all are though

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