nroatta1986 0 Posted February 17, 2011 Share Posted February 17, 2011 People, situation yesterday at a $5-$10 table.10-handed tableHero: QQ, Late PositionEveryone callsHero raises to $75Villain (Dealer ) callsUTG 1 callsEveryone else foldsFlop: 4-4-J - Pot: $270UTG1 checkHero raises to $150 (50% the pot aprox.)Villain goes all in ($800)UTG1 foldsHero callsTurn: 4-4-J-QRiver: 4-4-J-Q-5Hero shows: QQVilain Shows: AJHero wons the pot: $1870I raised pre-flop and he called. It was the second hand he had played in the table and the hand before he went all in before with pocket 9. I figured that if he had something, he could have 44, JJ, AJ, JK (not JQ, I had two already and that would be a problem).What do you think? Link to post Share on other sites
FARGOpokerND 22 Posted February 17, 2011 Share Posted February 17, 2011 Umm...seems fine? Link to post Share on other sites
Mercury69 3 Posted February 17, 2011 Share Posted February 17, 2011 You had an aggro villain hit TPTK when you had an overpair. Only 4 (sort of) hands beat you (some random x4!, JJ, KK, AA), so it's pretty standard to call. Link to post Share on other sites
mtdesmoines 3 Posted February 17, 2011 Share Posted February 17, 2011 I raised pre-flop and he called. It was the second hand he had played in the table and the hand before he went all in before with pocket 9. I figured that if he had something, he could have 44, JJ, AJ, JK (not JQ, I had two already and that would be a problem).What do you think?I'm never folding to his shove and prob betting weak like you did to provoke a shove. NH Link to post Share on other sites
Shark527 0 Posted February 17, 2011 Share Posted February 17, 2011 People, situation yesterday at a $5-$10 table.10-handed tableHero: QQ, Late PositionEveryone callsHero raises to $75Villain (Dealer ) callsUTG 1 callsEveryone else foldsFlop: 4-4-J - Pot: $270UTG1 checkHero raises to $150 (50% the pot aprox.)Villain goes all in ($800)UTG1 foldsHero callsTurn: 4-4-J-QRiver: 4-4-J-Q-5Hero shows: QQVilain Shows: AJHero wons the pot: $1870I raised pre-flop and he called. It was the second hand he had played in the table and the hand before he went all in before with pocket 9. I figured that if he had something, he could have 44, JJ, AJ, JK (not JQ, I had two already and that would be a problem).What do you think?why would that be a problem? Link to post Share on other sites
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