Is My Thinking Correct?

[gEM 0]

lets say ur playing 50c 1$ nlhe heads up.you open-raise to 3 so this means that your opponent has to call 2$ to win $4 so (ignoring implied odds)he has to have 33% or better to beat you for him to call correctly right?i get 33 because he can lose twice (lost 4) and win once (won 4) and hell break even

[sholden 0]

If you just calculate it as:$2 to call, winner gets $6, so 2/6 = 33%It's simpler than the "win $4" approach - in my opinion anyway.But it's not 33% to win, there are also ties to consider. He needs over 33% equity to make the call (assuming it's all-in so there are no implied odds) profitable. What portion is from chopping and what from winning is irrelevant to the odds.Of course implied odds (and reverse implied odds) are way more important than the pot odds preflop.

[Sheiky 0]

Taking this as a purely mathematical hot/cold equity situation, i think that is correct sire.

[gEM 0]

If you just calculate it as:$2 to call, winner gets $6, so 2/6 = 33%It's simpler than the "win $4" approach - in my opinion anyway.But it's not 33% to win, there are also ties to consider. He needs over 33% equity to make the call (assuming it's all-in so there are no implied odds) profitable. What portion is from chopping and what from winning is irrelevant to the odds.Of course implied odds (and reverse implied odds) are way more important than the pot odds preflop.

this is all correct but let me give u a quick related exampleif in the above scenario after u raise to 3 opp. goes all in for 50 you now have to call 47 to win 53 (ignoring rake) which comes to 88.6% using your approach. but obviously 88.6 is not needed to make this call. actually i dont think there is a call that needs over 50% to be made.

[Poker Addict 0]

If you just calculate it as:$2 to call, winner gets $6, so 2/6 = 33%It's simpler than the "win $4" approach - in my opinion anyway.But it's not 33% to win, there are also ties to consider. He needs over 33% equity to make the call (assuming it's all-in so there are no implied odds) profitable. What portion is from chopping and what from winning is irrelevant to the odds.Of course implied odds (and reverse implied odds) are way more important than the pot odds preflop.

I agree, implied odds are extremely important. Especially in a HU situation.

[gEM 0]

If you just calculate it as:$2 to call, winner gets $6, so 2/6 = 33%It's simpler than the "win $4" approach - in my opinion anyway.

waaait. 2 to call winner gets 4 not 6. i see you are including the 2 you call but you cant count that as profit. this way you will get 50% but if you use the 'win 4' you will get 33.

[simo_8ball 0]

this is all correct but let me give u a quick related exampleif in the above scenario after u raise to 3 opp. goes all in for 50 you now have to call 47 to win 53 (ignoring rake) which comes to 88.6% using your approach. but obviously 88.6 is not needed to make this call. actually i dont think there is a call that needs over 50% to be made.

No, his approach would be he is calling 47 and the winner gets 100. He needs to be 47/100 = 47% to call. Which is correct.Call Amount/Final Pot Size = Equity Required to Call.

[gEM 0]

No, his approach would be he is calling 47 and the winner gets 100. He needs to be 47/100 = 47% to call. Which is correct.Call Amount/Final Pot Size = Equity Required to Call.

lol i just realized that . thanks

[bigcoled 1]

you can't ignore implied odds... that's just silly...