Need To Vent...

[river_me_this 0]

I was playing in a .50/$1 game i was one outed 2 hands in a row one of them was runner runner one outers and has a runner runner straight put on me. Oh and they were all beats put on by the same guy Hand one: I raised in late posistion with AK off and get one caller the flop is AKK I bet he raises I call turns a nine I bet he raises all in I snap call he shows pocket nines and the river is the fourth nine Hand two: I raised in early psostion with pocket aces and he reraises me all in I snap call and he has K2 off. The flop is TT2 the run is a 9 at this point I have a flush draw which takes away one of his outs then the 2C came on the riverHand three: I raised in middle posistion with AJ suited the flop come J46 he pushes all in I don't think he has anything so I call he has 95 and hits 7 on turn and 8 on river to make a straight safe to say i quit after that last hand i just don't know how that happens

[dingas 0]

In hand 2 your flush draw doesn't take away one of his outs because a full house beats a flush.

[XXEddie 0]

In hand 2 your flush draw doesn't take away one of his outs because a full house beats a flush.

Not to mention that with the paird board of TT29, the 9, the 2 and one of the 10s HAVE to be a club. Meaning hit cant hit a 2 that gives you a flush because its already on board.I call bs on these though

[river_me_this 0]

obviously I can't prove these are real because it happened in a home game but yea your right hand two is wrong and Im trying to rmemeber why