boynamedsue

The Final Result.Raising the flop would not have mattered. I almost folded to the SB's all in raise putting him on 9 10 for the straight, but the only 9 10 that I thought would have bet the flop was the 9 10 of clubs. He could have this hand one way. I think he would have similarly bet AJ QJ 22 or some other two pair combo. So I call his all in bet and the flush draw behind me folds.SB shows me Jh Jd for 3 jacks.River is the 3c which would have completed flush draw if last player had stayed in (he later told me he was on flush draw after hand).BTW...this was the second time this player caught

My question deals with the turn primarily and the SB all in raise. I understand that I priced the flush in behind me on the flop, however that is if he sees two cards without another bet made. I'm not planning on letting the flush draw see the river (as I'm going to probably move in on the turn with any non-club card), so with one card to come (the turn card) he is not priced in if that makes sense. Let me put it another way, he is calling $20 to win $75 with 9 outs once. Thats on the flop. Assuming that the turn is not a club, and the SB doesn't bet, I'm going to bet $230 into a $95 pot... no

This was my final analysis also...i want others to chime in though before i give you the outcome.

This is a live $1/$2 game. 10 players all decent, none exceptional.I'm in MP with $250 w/ 8h 8d. Its folded to me I raise to $5 (five is a standard raise here because chips are 1 and 5 dollar denomenations so raises are usually either 5 or 10 dollars).All 6 players behind me call.$35 in pot. Flop comes 8c Jc 2sSB makes it $20 to go its folded to me. SB has most chips at table with close to $400.I decide to wait for turn to make a move with my three 8's and call.One player on my left with around $300 calls behind me. At this point this is my analysis. SB has AJ, KJ or perhaps two pair...player