kevin2536 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 I am playing on Nl on party. there is a raise preflop. 3 of us saw a flop of J27 rainbow. I have 22. we get all the money in on the flop, one shows 77 and the other JJ. Link to post Share on other sites
BigGrease 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 I am playing on Nl on party. there is a raise preflop. 3 of us saw a flop of J27 rainbow. I have 22. we get all the money in on the flop, one shows 77 and the other JJ.9000% Link to post Share on other sites
Vogelb5 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 Happened to me. I had top set.. bottom set hit quads. That was fun. Link to post Share on other sites
kevin2536 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Author Share Posted July 20, 2006 9000%uve been a member since nov and u decide to make this ur first post? very gay Link to post Share on other sites
BigGrease 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 uve been a member since nov and u decide to make this ur first post? very gayYeah it is pretty gay...it seemed really funny in my head but ive been awake for like 36 hours so im kind of delerious Link to post Share on other sites
kevin2536 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Author Share Posted July 20, 2006 Yeah it is pretty gay...it seemed really funny in my head but ive been awake for like 36 hours so im kind of deleriousand u made this ur 2nd? what the hell Link to post Share on other sites
socalpoker_j 1 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 Happened to me. I had top set.. bottom set hit quads. That was fun.That's always the best feeling. Link to post Share on other sites
navybuttons 15 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 uve been a member since nov and u decide to make this ur first post? very gayi thought this was actually quite an astute first post. since the odds of the OP's hand are in fact 9000%, or basically infinity, but 9000% conveys the point.now, if he had said what are the odds of this happening in the next hand i am delt the answer would obviously not be so. Link to post Share on other sites
swahnroger 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 i thought this was actually quite an astute first post. since the odds of the OP's hand are in fact 9000%, or basically infinity, but 9000% conveys the point.I'm no math genius, but isn't the correct answer 100%, no more no less? Link to post Share on other sites
WestcoastCanuck 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 there is a raise preflopFold. Link to post Share on other sites
kennyg1966 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 Yeah it is pretty gay...it seemed really funny in my head but ive been awake for like 36 hours so im kind of deleriousi see you have a promissing career here at FCP poker forum! Link to post Share on other sites
blackntan06 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 Fold.agree.. Link to post Share on other sites
....Ian.... 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 .05%**calculation assumes you all have pairs Link to post Share on other sites
Actuary 3 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 to say we should fold preflop with 22, and not know the stacks is silly advice.We have no idea the size of the raise, nor pos, nor stacks*************************and kevin2536,you have over 100 posts and your posts are still lame?I'd say BigGrease has more potential. Link to post Share on other sites
sirch1 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 I am playing on Nl on party. there is a raise preflop. 3 of us saw a flop of J27 rainbow. I have 22. we get all the money in on the flop, one shows 77 and the other JJ.its party, its pretty ****ing likely Link to post Share on other sites
Actuary 3 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 *************************************************** .05%**calculation assumes you all have pairsyep..or 1 / 1897.5 Link to post Share on other sites
jarrodhenry 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 Simple question.You're asking what are the odds of three people getting pocket pairs.Now, let's also remember that these three events.. player one getting pair, player two getting pair, and player three getting pair..The odds of those three things are minutely dependable on each other.So there are 1326 possible starting hands. (52 * 51) / 2 Of those 1326 possible starting hands, there are 13 pairs with six permutations for a pair. 78 hands are pairs. 78/1326 = 1/16 So the odds of getting a pocket pair are 1/16.Now, the odds of that pair being dominated if it were 2's with 7 other people in the hand are actually pretty high. In fact, it's around 8%. 1 out of 10 times, holding pocket 2's is going to get beat out.Now, the odds are about equal at that point of any of the three making their set. The fact that you all three did is statistically interesting. The fact that you made it on the flop is a really interesting statistical anomoly. Looking at it though.. JJ wins about 66% , 77 about 18%, and 22 about 15% preflop. You should have known you were facing a higher pair. Link to post Share on other sites
Actuary 3 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 jarrod... it's 1/17 to be dealt a pp.not to mention the other mistakes.or maybe you were joking****************fwiw,if we assume only 3 players at table then chance of 3 pp and 3 flopped sets is 0.000010661%or 1 in 9,379,927.083someone may want to verify. Link to post Share on other sites
Mercury69 3 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 Hahaha...you crazy math geeks are funny. Link to post Share on other sites
jarrodhenry 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 jarrod... it's 1/17 to be dealt a pp.not to mention the other mistakes.or maybe you were joking****************fwiw,if we assume only 3 players at table then chance of 3 pp and 3 flopped sets is 0.000010661%or 1 in 9,379,927.083someone may want to verify.Hmm.. I'm going off this:http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Poker_probabi...s_hold_'em)However, it's apparently incorrect on the odds for a PP. It lists 16:1. The correct answer is 17:1 Link to post Share on other sites
Actuary 3 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 However, it's apparently incorrect on the odds for a PP. It lists 16:1. The correct answer is 17:1no, it's 1/17. Or 16:1 against Link to post Share on other sites
jarrodhenry 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 no, it's 1/17. Or 16:1 againstExcept if you divide out the other numbers in that table, it doesn't seem to work out that way. Something in that first table is incorrect. I'm working the other math through a calculator. Probability statistics is hard at times. Link to post Share on other sites
Actuary 3 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 Except if you divide out the other numbers in that table, it doesn't seem to work out that way. Something in that first table is incorrect. I'm working the other math through a calculator. Probability statistics is hard at times.there is a 3 out of 51 chance your 2nd card pairs your first.that's the 1/17. converted to odds = 16:1also...13 * @combin(4,2)*@combin(48,0) / @combin(52,2) = 1/17 Link to post Share on other sites
Pupsta 0 Posted July 20, 2006 Share Posted July 20, 2006 completely 50/50. either it happens or it doesn't. Link to post Share on other sites
Recommended Posts
Create an account or sign in to comment
You need to be a member in order to leave a comment
Create an account
Sign up for a new account in our community. It's easy!
Register a new accountSign in
Already have an account? Sign in here.
Sign In Now