Rageur 0 Posted January 4, 2006 Share Posted January 4, 2006 I've taken a few unsuccessful stabs at finding a good resource for my question. I was wondering if anyone here could point me in the right direction. I'm looking to understand proper chop etiquette and examine what benefits what player. Got in the position to chop last night, but busted the guy before I considered my options. An observer was chirping like crazy that we should chop...... I obviously just wanted to take it down right there. But for future reference, I'd like to not remain so ignorant on the subject. Here is the final hand of the tourney with some details of my specific scenario... (if it matters) and of course it shows the happy ending!! Thanks in advance; mucho appreciatto.---------------------------------------------------------------- *********** # 422 **************PokerStars Game #3529276114: Tournament #17356578, Hold'em No Limit - Level XXII(20000/40000) - 2006/01/04 - 04:16:04 (ET)Table '17356578 40' Seat #4 is the buttonSeat 4: Drakarr (548768 in chips) Seat 6: Rageur (1198732 in chips) Drakarr: posts the ante 2000Rageur: posts the ante 2000Drakarr: posts small blind 20000Rageur: posts big blind 40000*** HOLE CARDS ***Dealt to Rageur [Ad As]R1V3R SH4RK [observer] said, "you guys don't want to chop?"Drakarr: raises 80000 to 120000Rageur: calls 80000*** FLOP *** [Qd 4s 3s]Rageur: checks Drakarr: checks *** TURN *** [Qd 4s 3s] [Kd]Rageur: bets 120000Drakarr: raises 120000 to 240000Rageur: raises 836732 to 1076732 and is all-inDrakarr: calls 186768 and is all-in*** RIVER *** [Qd 4s 3s Kd] [3d]*** SHOW DOWN ***Rageur: shows [Ad As] (two pair, Aces and Threes)Drakarr: shows [Qh Th] (two pair, Queens and Threes)Rageur said, "gg"Rageur collected 1097536 from pot*** SUMMARY ***Total pot 1097536 | Rake 0 Board [Qd 4s 3s Kd 3d]Seat 4: Drakarr (button) (small blind) showed [Qh Th] and lost with two pair,Queens and ThreesSeat 6: Rageur (big blind) showed [Ad As] and won (1097536) with two pair, Acesand Threes Link to post Share on other sites
Rocketwadster 0 Posted January 4, 2006 Share Posted January 4, 2006 I would think that any chop would be based on the current chip stacks of the players at the time that the chop was agreed to.For example, you have about 70% of the chips before this hand started. If first place pays 100, and second pays 50, then you would add the two together ($150), and then assign your 70% to the $150 = $105. Doens't pokerstars have a standard formula for their guaranteed tournament (you should be able to look it up in their guaranteed weekly reports I would think). 8) Link to post Share on other sites
Petoria 0 Posted January 4, 2006 Share Posted January 4, 2006 On Stars they figure chip count chops like this:$100 for 1st, $50 for 2ndChip stacks: (For arguments sake) you have 2, he has 1Pokerstars first takes out the 50 for 2nd, then multiply the remaining 100 to the % of the remaining chips you have left, then add the 50 to each of those. In this case, you get $116.66 and your opponent gets the remaining. This ensures that the chopping cannot give someone less than they would receive if they were to get knocked out right then. So if you had 99% of the chips, you would not receive 99% of the money remaining of the prize pool. Link to post Share on other sites
Rocketwadster 0 Posted January 4, 2006 Share Posted January 4, 2006 On Stars they figure chip count chops like this:$100 for 1st, $50 for 2ndChip stacks: (For arguments sake) you have 2, he has 1Pokerstars first takes out the 50 for 2nd, then multiply the remaining 100 to the % of the remaining chips you have left, then add the 50 to each of those. In this case, you get $116.66 and your opponent gets the remaining. This ensures that the chopping cannot give someone less than they would receive if they were to get knocked out right then. So if you had 99% of the chips, you would not receive 99% of the money remaining of the prize pool.Yeah, that makes a little more sense than what I had indicated. I missed that I had the guy who finished second getting less withthe chop than if he didnt chop... :oops: Link to post Share on other sites
yergan 0 Posted January 9, 2006 Share Posted January 9, 2006 On Stars they figure chip count chops like this:$100 for 1st, $50 for 2ndChip stacks: (For arguments sake) you have 2, he has 1Pokerstars first takes out the 50 for 2nd, then multiply the remaining 100 to the % of the remaining chips you have left, then add the 50 to each of those. In this case, you get $116.66 and your opponent gets the remaining. This ensures that the chopping cannot give someone less than they would receive if they were to get knocked out right then. So if you had 99% of the chips, you would not receive 99% of the money remaining of the prize pool.Im not sure I follow this, it looks like you have made a similar mistake since the opponent now gets only $33.33. I think you should have taken out $100 total (50 from both first and second prizes) then split the rest. So you get $50 + 0.66 * 50 = 83 and opponent gets 67. Link to post Share on other sites
pokerkid 0 Posted January 9, 2006 Share Posted January 9, 2006 anyone else think he played the hand horribly? Link to post Share on other sites
pokerplayer24 0 Posted January 9, 2006 Share Posted January 9, 2006 On Stars they figure chip count chops like this:$100 for 1st, $50 for 2ndChip stacks: (For arguments sake) you have 2, he has 1Pokerstars first takes out the 50 for 2nd, then multiply the remaining 100 to the % of the remaining chips you have left, then add the 50 to each of those. In this case, you get $116.66 and your opponent gets the remaining. This ensures that the chopping cannot give someone less than they would receive if they were to get knocked out right then. So if you had 99% of the chips, you would not receive 99% of the money remaining of the prize pool.Im not sure I follow this, it looks like you have made a similar mistake since the opponent now gets only $33.33. I think you should have taken out $100 total (50 from both first and second prizes) then split the rest. So you get $50 + 0.66 * 50 = 83 and opponent gets 67.Correct.When Pokerstars chops with say 5 people left. Everyone is given the 5th place prizes $ then the % of the remaining that in ratio to their chip %. Link to post Share on other sites
Petoria 0 Posted January 9, 2006 Share Posted January 9, 2006 On Stars they figure chip count chops like this:$100 for 1st, $50 for 2ndChip stacks: (For arguments sake) you have 2, he has 1Pokerstars first takes out the 50 for 2nd, then multiply the remaining 100 to the % of the remaining chips you have left, then add the 50 to each of those. In this case, you get $116.66 and your opponent gets the remaining. This ensures that the chopping cannot give someone less than they would receive if they were to get knocked out right then. So if you had 99% of the chips, you would not receive 99% of the money remaining of the prize pool.Im not sure I follow this, it looks like you have made a similar mistake since the opponent now gets only $33.33. I think you should have taken out $100 total (50 from both first and second prizes) then split the rest. So you get $50 + 0.66 * 50 = 83 and opponent gets 67.My bad, but I wrote it correctly.... :-) Link to post Share on other sites
sirphatticus 0 Posted January 9, 2006 Share Posted January 9, 2006 chops are weakTJ would tell you to be a man, i think DN would too. Link to post Share on other sites
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