question?

[charder30 0]

So i was playing this 100+9 sit n go at bodog today and i got into a heated debate with another player, he claimed that since we were playing 9 handed A3 suited after the flop of J T and 9 that 980 was a 65% favo over A3 but i told him that it was 55/45 and he said no, since we were playing 9 handed u had to take into account that clubs were folded, and i told him he was crazy and for all he new no clubs were mucked but he still insisted..... Aren't i right?

[zimmer4141 0]

Yes, you are correct. you can't count mucked cards.

[LongLiveYorke 38]

We don't know where the clubs are, there are as likely in the much as they are in the deck that we are drawing from. Unless we have specific knowledge that clubs were folded, we just consider all cards that we haven't seen to be in the "deck" and equally likely to come out. The correct odds are about 56 to 44 in favor of 98o.

[turd ferguson 1]

Of course you are right, but there is no reason to argue that with him. You should tell him he is right the next time you see him.

[ChipLeader7 0]

I really cant understand how ppl like that put up 100 bucks :roll:

[CrAcKeDaCeS 0]

One of my friends who plays in my home game tries to argue this point with me all the time. For example, if we're in a coin flip situation, say A Q against 99, he would argue that you can "safely assume that somebody folded a Q, and somebody folded an A...at first I argued with him, and now I just politely agree....more money for me to win.

[srblan 0]

One of my friends who plays in my home game tries to argue this point with me all the time. For example, if we're in a coin flip situation, say A Q against 99, he would argue that you can "safely assume that somebody folded a Q, and somebody folded an A...at first I argued with him, and now I just politely agree....more money for me to win.

Why not safely assume that someone folded a 9 then? Or two nines?