Bad Beat Jackpot And High Hand Rules Interpretation

[pokerglory 0]

At a local card room, certain percentage of each pot is raked for a Bad Beat Jackpot. This pot also pays high hands.The high hands payout is as follows:High Hands 2 Cards 1 Card Royal Flush 15.0% 5.0% Straight Flush 10.0% 4.0% Four of a Kind 5.0% 3.0% From a poker player's perspective, this is quite straightforward where the "2 cards or 1 cards" refer to the number of a hole cards a player uses to derive a high hand.However, should the four of a kind be interpreted as:a) 2 or 1 hole card creates the four of a kind. (e.g. 5-5 on a 5-5-x-x-x board, or A-5 on a 5-5-5-x-x board).B) 2 or 1 hole card creates the four of a kind HAND. (e.g. A-6 on a 6-6-6-5-4 would be a 2-card four-of-a-kind holding, A-Q on a 7-7-7-7-5 board would be a 1-card four-of-a-kind holding).Thoughts?

[bigcoled 1]

If the kicker is in your hand for quads, even if there's one of the board I believe, ex 555AK and u have A5, i believe the card in your hand plays, because in hold'em suit value doesn't play, it's the best 5 card hand

[timwakefield 69]

B) 2 or 1 hole card creates the four of a kind HAND. (e.g. A-6 on a 6-6-6-5-4 would be a 2-card four-of-a-kind holding, A-Q on a 7-7-7-7-5 board would be a 1-card four-of-a-kind holding).

This one seems correct to me. If the board were 77775 and three players each had Ax, they would all have hit the 1-card-bonus. On the other hand, the casino can do whatever the hell it wants, since its their bonus. They certainly have to tell you which it is, but only if you ask.BTW your poll is a little confusing because you left out that AQ is a one-card holding on 77775, but if people read the post then they will figure it out because you said it there.

[pokerglory 0]

This one seems correct to me. If the board were 77775 and three players each had Ax, they would all have hit the 1-card-bonus. On the other hand, the casino can do whatever the hell it wants, since its their bonus. They certainly have to tell you which it is, but only if you ask.BTW your poll is a little confusing because you left out that AQ is a one-card holding on 77775, but if people read the post then they will figure it out because you said it there.

Thx - corrected the poll.OK - maybe better way to rephrase it - when you look at the rules, would you take it that the intent is that one card is required to construct the 4-of-a-kind? I know it's not specifically stated (and hence, that's where the ambiguity lies).There is debate over whether a similar AQ hand on a quad board should be paid off.

[Merby 3]

Local casinos vary their requirements. I know at my local casinos, the bad beat jackpot is only awarded if both hole cards of both hands are used and it specifically says kickers do not count (a hand which makes up a 4-of-a-kind must have a pair for the hole cards). So at my casino, [5 5] on a board of [5 5 x x x] qualifies, whereas [A 5] on a board of [5 5 5 x x] does not.If nothing is explicitly mentioned, then A6 *should* qualify as a 1-card hand on a board [5 5 5 5 K].

[hank213 1,824]

Doubt you're gonna get any traction with a casino on this.I see where you're going, but I also see what the casino is stating (frankly, their wording in the rules is important).What about a 5555K board where 2 or more players get to showdown and no one holds a card higher than Q? etc.

[timwakefield 69]

What about a 5555K board where 2 or more players get to showdown and no one holds a card higher than Q? etc.

That's actually not a problem at all, because they're both just playing the board, thus can't even meet the requirement to use one of their cards. Regarding the rule, as it's written it seems to imply that AQ should get paid there, since any hand you play in HE must by definition be made up of 5 cards. But again, if it's their policy to never pay there, then there's nothing you can do to change that. I would think they'd have it written down somewhere in legalese.

[hank213 1,824]

That's actually not a problem at all, because they're both just playing the board, thus can't even meet the requirement to use one of their cards. Regarding the rule, as it's written it seems to imply that AQ should get paid there, since any hand you play in HE must by definition be made up of 5 cards. But again, if it's their policy to never pay there, then there's nothing you can do to change that. I would think they'd have it written down somewhere in legalese.

You're right, I've gone retarded today. The bold was the thrust of what I was getting at.

[Suited_Up 2]

Local casinos vary their requirements. I know at my local casinos, the bad beat jackpot is only awarded if both hole cards of both hands are used and it specifically says kickers do not count (a hand which makes up a 4-of-a-kind must have a pair for the hole cards). So at my casino, [5 5] on a board of [5 5 x x x] qualifies, whereas [A 5] on a board of [5 5 5 x x] does not.If nothing is explicitly mentioned, then A6 *should* qualify as a 1-card hand on a board [5 5 5 5 K].

This. It's the same way at mine. "Must have a pair in hand"But I guess you're specifically asking about a 1 card holding. In that case, I have no idea, never seen that before.

[blakheart 3]

One card in hand is sort of unusual, no? Where I play both hole cards must play to win. In your example I think that AQ is a winner. (not sure if choose correctly on your poll