first of all obviously i know nothing about this whole thing, except what ram and you wrote.what i ask myself is this: if ivey did NOTHING wrong, how come they met to see if the handicaps were fair. and came to the conclusion it wasnt fair, and ivey already agreed on figuring out the amount he should have won if the handicaps were acurrate?thats what ram wrote right? they wanted to see what the amount would have been, and he said no the match is void.if it happened like that, and ivey already caved in, theres gotta be something he did wrong. what juanda said (on aussie millions i believe) di