Basically, my thoughts were that you had to play at least one of the cards dealt to you.Clearly, that's not the case. That was my only question, I should have just asked it like that.
So last night we were playing texas hold 'em.On the table were 10 J Q K AIn my hand was 9 5In his hand was 3 3I believed that I won with the 9-K straight, he claimed that the pot was split since the hand on the table was the highest possible hand, and that we therefore both had the same hand.We ended up splitting the pot, but I'm curious as to what the actual rule would be in this instanceAny clarification would be greatly appreciated.